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Commenting on Wittgenstein’s notion of language-games in human practice, long-time associate Norman Malcom asserts, “the use of an expression is the language game in which it plays a part” (Malcom, 337)

Being only exposed in a limited way to the philosophy of The Witt, I wonder if the above quote could/should be reversed: “the use of an expression is the part it plays in a given language-game.”

Or, are these two word-orders closer in meaning than one might at first suppose?

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~ Norman Malcom, “Wittgenstein” in P. Edwards (ed.), The Encyclopedia of Philosophy VIII, 337.

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